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Get here all the Important questions for Class 12 Biology chapter wise as free PDF download. Here you will get Extra Important Questions with answers, assertion reasoning and Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ's) chapter wise in Printable format. Class 12 Biology has 16 important chapters covering various important topics related to human physiology evolution, diseases, genetics, organisms, populations, etc.Solving Chapter wise questions is one of the best ways to prepare for the examination. Students are advised to understand the concepts and theories of Biology properly before the exam. You can easily find 1 Mark, 2 marks, 3 marks, and 5 marks questions from each chapter of Class 12 Biology and prepare for exam more effectively. These preparation material for Class 12 Biology , shared by teachers, parents and students, are as per latest NCERT and CBSE Pattern syllabus and assure great success in achieving high score in Final CBSE Board Examinations.

Latest MCQ's and Important Questions for CBSE Class 12 Biology

Reproduction in Organisms class 12 important questions pdf Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants class 12 important questions pdf Human Reproduction class 12 important questions pdf Reproductive Health class 12 important questions pdf Principles of Inheritance and Variation class 12 important questions pdf Molecular Basis of Inheritance class 12 important questions pdf Evolution class 12 important questions pdf Human Health and Diseases class 12 important questions pdf Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production class 12 important questions pdf Microbes in Human Welfare class 12 important questions pdf Biotechnology Principles and Processes class 12 important questions pdf Organisms and Populations class 12 important questions pdf Ecosystem class 12 important questions pdf Biodiversity and Conservation class 12 important questions pdf Environmental Issues class 12 important questions pdf important questions of chapter 1 biology class 12 important questions of chapter 2 biology class 12 important questions of chapter 3 biology class 12 important questions of chapter 4 biology class 12 important questions of chapter 5 biology class 12 important questions of chapter 6 biology class 12 important questions of chapter 7 biology class 12 important questions of chapter 8 biology class 12 important questions of chapter 9 biology class 12 important questions of chapter 10 biology class 12 important questions of chapter 11 biology class 12 important questions of chapter 12 biology class 12 important questions of chapter 13 biology class 12 important questions of chapter 14 biology class 12 important questions of chapter 15 biology class 12 important questions of chapter 16 biology class 12 Reproduction in Organisms class 12 mcq Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants class 12 mcq Human Reproduction class 12 mcq Reproductive Health class 12 mcq Principles of Inheritance and Variation class 12 mcq Molecular Basis of Inheritance class 12 mcq Evolution class 12 mcq Human Health and Diseases class 12 mcq Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production class 12 mcq Microbes in Human Welfare class 12 mcq Biotechnology Principles and Processes class 12 mcq Biotechnology: and its Application class 12 mcq Organisms and Populations class 12 mcq Ecosystem class 12 mcq Biodiversity and Conservation class 12 mcq Environmental Issues class 12 mcq case based questions class 12 biology chapter 1 case based questions class 12 biology chapter 2 case based questions class 12 biology chapter 3 case based questions class 12 biology chapter 4 case based questions class 12 biology chapter 5 case based questions class 12 biology chapter 6 case based questions class 12 biology chapter 7 case based questions class 12 biology chapter 8 case based questions class 12 biology chapter 9 case based questions class 12 biology chapter 10 case based questions class 12 biology chapter 11 case based questions class 12 biology chapter 12 case based questions class 12 biology chapter 13 case based questions class 12 biology chapter 14 case based questions class 12 biology chapter 15 case based questions class 12 biology chapter 16 Assertion Reason questions Biology Class 12 Chapter 1 Assertion Reason questions Biology Class 12 Chapter 2 Assertion Reason questions Biology Class 12 Chapter 3 Assertion Reason questions Biology Class 12 Chapter 4 Assertion Reason questions Biology Class 12 Chapter 5 Assertion Reason questions Biology Class 12 Chapter 6 Assertion Reason questions Biology Class 12 Chapter 7 Assertion Reason questions Biology Class 12 Chapter 8 Assertion Reason questions Biology Class 12 Chapter 9 Assertion Reason questions Biology Class 12 Chapter 10 Assertion Reason questions Biology Class 12 Chapter 11 Assertion Reason questions Biology Class 12 Chapter 12 Assertion Reason questions Biology Class 12 Chapter 13 Assertion Reason questions Biology Class 12 Chapter 14 Assertion Reason questions Biology Class 12 Chapter 15 Assertion Reason questions Biology Class 12 Chapter 16

Total Papers :

CBSE Class 12 Biology Syllabus

• Reproduction in Organisms
• Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
• Human Reproduction
• Reproductive Health
• Principles of Inheritance and Variation
• Molecular Basis of Inheritance
• Human Health and Diseases
• Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
• Microbes in Human Welfare
• Biotechnology - Principles and Processes
• Biotechnology and its Application
• Organisms and Populations
• Biodiversity and its Conservation
• Environmental Issues

Course Syllabus Details

Unit vi. reproduction.

Chapter 1: Reproduction in Organisms

• A characteristic feature of all organisms for continuation of species
• Asexual reproduction
• Sexual reproduction
• Modes-Binary fission
• Sporulation
• Fragmentation
• vegetative propagation in plants

Chapter 2: Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

• Flower structure
• Development of male and female gametophytes
• Outbreeding devices
• Pollen-Pistil interaction
• Double fertilization
• Post fertilization Events-Development of endosperm and embryo
• Development of seed and formation of fruit
• Parthenocarpy
• Polyembryony
• Significance of seed and fruit formation

Chapter 3: Human Reproduction

• Male and female reproductive systems
• Microscopic anatomy of testis and ovary
• Spermatogenesis
• Menstrual cycle
• Fertilisation embryo development up to blastocyst formation, implantation pregnancy and placenta formation (Elementary idea)
• Parturition (Elementary idea)
• Lactation (Elementary idea)

Chapter 4: Reproductive Health

• Need for reproductive health and prevention of sexually transmitted diseases (STD)
• Need and Methods
• Contraception
• Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
• Amniocentesis
• GIFT (Elementary idea for general awareness)

Unit VII. Genetics and Evolution

Chapter 5: Principles of Inheritance and Variation

• Mendelian Inheritance
• Incomplete dominance
• Co-dominance
• Multiple alleles
• Inheritance of blood groups
• Elementary idea of polygenic inheritance
• Chromosome theory of inheritance
• Chromosomes and genes
• Linkage and crossing over
• Haemophilia
• Colour blindness
• Thalassemia
• Down's syndrome
• Klinefelter's syndromes

Chapter 6: Molecular Basis of Inheritance

• Search for genetic material and DNA as genetic material
• Structure of DNA and RNA
• DNA packaging
• DNA replication
• Central dogma
• Transcription, genetic code, translation
• Genome and human ganeome project
• DNA fingerprinting

Chapter 7: Evolution

• Origin of life
• Biological evolution and evidences for biological evolution (Paleontological, comparative anatomy, embryology and molecular evidence)
• Darwin's contribution
• Modern Synthetic theory of Evolution
• Variation (Mutation and Recombination)
• Natural Selection with examples
• Types of natural selection
• Gene flow and genetic drift
• Hardy - Weinberg's principle
• Adaptive Radiation
• Human evolution

Unit VIII. Biology and Human Welfare

Chapter 8: Human Health and Diseases

• Common cold
• Adolescence, drug and alcohol abuse

Chapter 9: Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

• Plant breeding
• Tissue culture
• Single cell protein
• Biofortification
• Apiculature
• Animal husbandry

Chapter-10: Microbes in Human Welfare

• In household food processing
• Industrial production
• Sewage treatment
• Energy generation and as biocontrol agents
• Biofertilizers
• Production and judicious use

Unit IX. Biotechnology and Its Applications

Chapter 11: Biotechnology - Principles and Processes

• Genetic engineering (Recombinant DNA technology).

Chapter 12: Biotechnology and its Application

• Human insulin and vaccine production, gene therapy
• Genetically modified organisms - Bt crops
• Transgenic Animals; biosafety issues, biopiracy and patents

Unit X. Ecology and Environment

Chapter 13: Organisms and Populations

• Ecological adaptations
• Competition
• Age distribution

Chapter 14: Ecosystem

• Productivity
• Decomposition
• Energy flow
• Pyramids of number, biomass, energy
• Nutrient cycles (carbon and phosphorous)
• Ecological succession
• Carbon fixation
• Pollination
• Seed dispersal
• Oxygen release (in brief)

Chapter-15: Biodiversity and its Conservation

• Concept of biodiversity
• Patterns of biodiversity
• Importance of biodiversity
• Loss of biodiversity
• Endangered organisms
• Red data book
• Biosphere reserves
• National parks
• Sanctuaries
• Ramsar sites

Chapter-16: Environmental Issues

• Air pollution and its control
• Water pollution and its control
• Agrochemicals and their effects
• Solid waste management
• Radioactive waste management
• Greenhouse effect and climate change
• Ozone layer depletion
• Deforestation
• Any one case study as success story addressing environmental issue(s).

Practical Works

Part A: List of Experiments

• Study pollen germination on a slide.
• Collect and study soil from at least two different sites and study them for texture, moisture content, pH and water holding capacity. Correlate with the kinds of plants found in them.
• Collect water from two different water bodies around you and study them for pH, clarity and presence of any living organisms.
• Study the presence of suspended particulate matter in air at two widely different sites.
• Study of plant population density by quadrat method.
• Study of plant population frequency by quadrat method.
• Prepare a temporary mount of onion root tip to study mitosis.
• Study the effect of different temperatures and three different pH on the activity of salivary amylase on starch.
• Isolation of DNA from available plant material such as spinach, green pea seeds, papaya, etc.

Part B: Study/observation of the following (Spotting)

• Flowers adapted to pollination by different agencies (wind, insect, bird).
• Pollen germination on stigma through a permanent slide.
• Identification of stages of gamete development, i.e., T.S. of testis and T.S. of ovary through permanent slides (from grasshopper/mice).
• Meiosis in onion bud cell or grasshopper testis through permanent slides.
• T.S. of blastula through permanent slides.
• Mendelian inheritance using seeds of different colour/sizes of any plant.
• Prepared pedigree charts of any one of the genetic traits such as rolling of tongue, blood groups, ear lobes, widow's peak and colour blindness.
• Controlled pollination - emasculation, tagging and bagging.
• Common disease causing organisms like Ascaris, Entamoeba, Plasmodium, Roundworm through permanent slides or specimens. Comment on symptoms of disease that they cause.
• Two plants and two animals (models/virtual images) found in xeric conditions. Comment upon their morphological adaptations.
• Two plants and two animals (models/virtual images) found in aquatic conditions. Comment upon their morphological adaptations.

Structure of CBSE Biology Sample Paper for Class 12 Science is

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Question Bank of Other Subjects of Class 12

Importance of Question Bank for Exam Preparation?

There are many ways to ascertain whether a student has understood the important points and topics of a particular chapter and is he or she well prepared for exams and tests of that particular chapter. Apart from reference books and notes, Question Banks are very effective study materials for exam preparation. When a student tries to attempt and solve all the important questions of any particular subject , it becomes very easy to gauge how much well the topics have been understood and what kind of questions are asked in exams related to that chapter.. Some of the other advantaging factors of Question Banks are as follows

• Since Important questions included in question bank are collections of questions that were asked in previous exams and tests thus when a student tries to attempt them they get a complete idea about what type of questions are usually asked and whether they have learned the topics well enough. This gives them an edge to prepare well for the exam.Students get the clear idea whether the questions framed from any particular chapter are mostly either short or long answer type questions or multiple choice based and also marks weightage of any particular chapter in final exams.
• CBSE Question Banks are great tools to help in analysis for Exams. As it has a collection of important questions that were asked previously in exams thereby it covers every question from most of the important topics. Thus solving questions from the question bank helps students in analysing their preparation levels for the exam. However the practice should be done in a way that first the set of questions on any particular chapter are solved and then solutions should be consulted to get an analysis of their strong and weak points. This ensures that they are more clear about what to answer and what can be avoided on the day of the exam.
• Solving a lot of different types of important questions gives students a clear idea of what are the main important topics of any particular chapter that needs to focussed on from examination perspective and should be emphasised on for revision before attempting the final paper. So attempting most frequently asked questions and important questions helps students to prepare well for almost everything in that subject.
• Although students cover up all the chapters included in the course syllabus by the end of the session, sometimes revision becomes a time consuming and difficult process. Thus, practicing important questions from Question Bank allows students to check the preparation status of each and every small topic in a chapter. Doing that ensures quick and easy insight into all the important questions and topics in each and every individual. Solving the important questions also acts as the revision process.

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Case Study on Reproductive Health Class 12 Biology PDF

Better preparation of Case Study on Reproductive Health Class 12 Biology can help students score good marks in the CBSE Class 12 Board examination. Additionally, it helps build confidence and enables students to deepen their knowledge of Reproductive Health. Because case-based questions are equally important for learning and board exam preparation, our team has prepared Case Study on Reproductive Health Class 12 Biology in a PDF file for free distribution among students.

Links to download the PDF file of the Reproductive Health Case Study for Class 12 Biology free of cost are mentioned on this page.

Reproductive Health Case Study for Class 12 Biology with Solutions in PDF

The PDF file of the Reproductive Health Case Study for Class 12 Biology with Solutions is a very important study resource that can help students better prepare for the exam and boost conceptual learning.

The solutions are in the hint manner as well as contain full examples too, refer to the link to access the Case Study on Reproductive Health Class 12 Biology with Solutions in PDF - it’s free.

Features of Class 12 Reproductive Health Case Study Questions  

Certain features of Class 12 Reproductive Health Case Study Questions are -

• Available for free 24×7
• Based on CBSE Class 12 Biology Syllabus
• Case Study Questions on Reproductive Health with Answers are given

Step-wise Method to Download Case Study on Reproductive Health Class 12 Biology

The below-given steps are helpful for students wanting to download Reproductive Health Case Study for Class 12 Biology with Solutions in a PDF file.

• Search Selfstudys.com using the internet browser
• After loading the website, click on the navigation button

• Click on CBSE from the list of categories

• Find and Click on Case Study

• Select Class 12 and Click on Biology to download the Reproductive Health case study questions in PDF. 

4 Tips to Answer Class 12 Biology Reproductive Health Case Study Questions?

There are 4 solid tips to answer Class 12 Biology Reproductive Health Case Study questions that we are discussing in this section.

• Read the Case Carefully: To start gathering insights from the given case-based questions, it is vital to read the Reproductive Health case carefully and identify the key facts, figures, and units of measurement. Pay attention to any diagrams or graphs related to Reproductive Health provided, as they may contain important information.
• Identify the Problem: While reading the Reproductive Health case it is essential to consider the possible causes and effects. This will help you determine the appropriate approach to solving the problem in Class 12 Biology Reproductive Health.
• Use Elimination Methods Too: Since case study questions of Class 12 Biology Reproductive Health, are often framed in Multiple choice questions, students should have the knowledge of elimination methods in MCQs to better answer the questions.
• Before All, Master the Concept of Reproductive Health: If the above two methods are not working for you to answer Case Study on Reproductive Health Class 12 Biology then you need to revisit the lesson and master the concepts explained in the Reproductive Health Class 12 Biology.

What is the Benefit of Practising Class 12 Biology Reproductive Health Case Study Questions?

When a student decides to practise Class 12 Biology Reproductive Health case study questions before the board examination they generally get these 3 benefits:

• Quick Conceptual Revision: Nothing is better for revision than solving relevant questions and therefore, those who involve in solving the Reproductive Health Case study questions before the Class 12 Biology exam are able to better revise their conceptual learnings from the lesson.
• Better Board Exam Preparation: No doubt, the more you practise Reproductive Health case study questions the better your exam preparation will be so, solving Case-based questions prior to the board examination helps a lot in the preparation. It also enables the students to know what are the Reproductive Health questions which have the possibility to be asked in the board examination.
• Confident in Using Analytical or Critical Thinking Skills: The Case-based questions on Reproductive Health are all about using analytical or critical thinking skills where students are required to solve problems based on the situations or data given. Thus, practising Case Study on Reproductive Health Class 12 Biology benefits students to feel confident and comfortable in using analytical skills.

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12th Class Biology Reproductive Health Question Bank

Done case based (mcqs) - reproductive health total questions - 35.

A) 1.21 million done clear

B) 1.21 billion done clear

C) 2.21 million done clear

D) 2.21 billion done clear

question_answer 2) MMR regarding population stands for

A) Mumps Measles Rubella done clear

B) Malaria Measles Rubella done clear

C) Malaria Measles Rabies done clear

D) Maternal Mortality Rate done clear

question_answer 3) According to the 2001 census report, the population growth rate of India was around

A) 1.1% done clear

B) 1.5% done clear

C) 1.7% done clear

D) 1.9% done clear

question_answer 4) In India, marriageable age of the female is

A) 16 years done clear

B) 18 years done clear

C) 20 years done clear

D) 22 years done clear

question_answer 5) In India, marriageable age of the male is

A) 21 years done clear

B) 22 years done clear

C) 23 years done clear

D) 24 years done clear

A) Day 7 to 10 of the menstrual cycle done clear

B) Day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle done clear

C) Day 12 to 17 of the menstrual cycle done clear

D) Day 15 to 22 of the menstrual cycle done clear

question_answer 7) Day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle is referred as

A) Puberty period done clear

B) Menarche period done clear

C) Fertile period done clear

D) Menopausic period done clear

question_answer 8) In coitus interruptus, male usually avoid

A) Spermatogenesis done clear

B) Spermiogenesis done clear

C) Onsemination done clear

D) Spermiation done clear

question_answer 9) During lactational period in female, which of the following process wont take place

B) Ovulation done clear

C) Insemination done clear

D) Coitus done clear

A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion. done clear

B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion. done clear

C) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement. done clear

D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement. done clear

A) Thick polyethylene sheath               done clear

B) Thin polyethylene sheath done clear

C) Thin rubber or latex sheath done clear

D) Thick rubber or latex sheath done clear

question_answer 12) Condoms used by male as well as female is a

A) Natural method of contraception done clear

B) Barrier method of contraception done clear

C) Chemical method of contraception done clear

D) Medicated method of contraception done clear

question_answer 13) Male condoms

A) Protect the user from STDs done clear

B) They are disposable done clear

C) Protect the user from AIDS done clear

D) All of the above done clear

question_answer 14) Diaphragm in female is

A) Fitted inside the oviduct done clear

B) Fitted inside the uterus done clear

C) Fitted inside the vagina done clear

D) Fitted inside the ampulla done clear

question_answer 15) Cervical cap for the contraception in female is

D) Fitted over the cervix done clear

A) Progestogens and LH done clear

B) Progestogens and estrogen done clear

C) Progestogens and relaxin done clear

D) Progestogens and FSH done clear

question_answer 17) Oral pills are used in the form of

A) Capsule done clear

B) Tablets done clear

C) Injection done clear

D) Implants done clear

question_answer 18) Oral pills inhibit which of the following process?

A) Ovulation i.e., release of ova done clear

B) Implantation i.e., fixation of embryo done clear

C) After the quality of cervical mucus done clear

question_answer 19) Saheli is the oral contraceptive pills for the females. It is

A) Steroidal composition done clear

B) Non-Steroidal composition done clear

C) Once a week pill done clear

D) B and C done clear

question_answer 20) Oral pills have to be taken by the females for a period of

A) 11 days starting within first five days of menstrual cycle done clear

B) 21 days starting within first five days of menstrual cycle done clear

C) 17 days starting within first five days of menstrual cycle done clear

D) 24 days starting within first five days of menstrual cycle done clear

D) Surgical method of contraception done clear

question_answer 22) Tubectomy is

question_answer 23) Two vasa deferntia are interrupted by giving cuts or ligation in

A) Tubectomy done clear

B) Vasectomy done clear

C) Appendicectomy done clear

D) Hepatectomy done clear

question_answer 24) In tubectomy, which of following structure is interrupted by giving cuts or ligation?

A) Right and left ovaries done clear

B) Right and left oviduct done clear

C) Uterus and epididymis done clear

D) Vagina and urethra done clear

question_answer 25) Tubectomy is responsible to cause

A) Surgical sterilization of male done clear

B) Surgical sterilization of female done clear

C) Surgical sterilization of eunuch done clear

D) Surgical sterilization of intersex done clear

A) 500 million done clear

B) 100 billion done clear

C) 8 billion done clear

D) 15 trillion done clear

question_answer 27) Oral contraceptives are prescribed in females to check :

A) Ovulation done clear

B) Fertilization done clear

C) Implantation done clear

D) Entry of sperms in vagina done clear

question_answer 28) "Saheli", a new oral contraceptive for the female was developed by scientists at

A) CDRI, Lucknow done clear

B) IISc. Bangalore done clear

C) CSIR, New Delhi done clear

D) ICMR, New Delhi done clear

question_answer 29) Oral contraceptive pills help in birth control by :

A) Killing sperms done clear

B) Killing ova done clear

C) Preventing ovulation done clear

D) Forming barrier between sperms and ova done clear

question_answer 30) Oral contraceptive pill is composed of

A) estrogen and progesterone done clear

B) estrogen and testosterone done clear

C) progesterone and testosterone done clear

D) estrogen and growth hormone done clear

A) ZIFT done clear

B) ICSI done clear

C) GIFT done clear

D) IUT done clear

question_answer 32) ZIFT involves transfer of embryo into the fallopian tube when it has

A) 8 blastomeres done clear

B) > 8 blastomeres done clear

C) 32 blastomeres done clear

D) 16 blastomeres done clear

question_answer 33) Test tube baby is a technique where :

A) Zygote is taken from ovary, cultured and then implanted in the uterus done clear

B) Ovum is taken from ovary, then fertilized outside and then implanted in the uterus done clear

C) Sperm and ovum are fertilized and grow in the test tube done clear

D) None of the above done clear

question_answer 34) Test tube baby means a baby born when :

A) It is developed in a test tube done clear

B) It develops from a non-fertilized egg done clear

C) The ovum is fertilized externally and there after implanted in uterus done clear

D) It is developed by tissue culture method done clear

question_answer 35) Assisted reproductive technology. IVF involves transfer of

A) Zygote into the uterus done clear

B) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian tube done clear

C) Ovum into the fallopian tube done clear

D) Zygote into the fallopian tube done clear

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Case Based (MCQs) - Reproductive Health

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Class 12 Biology Case Study Questions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

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In Class 12 Boards there will be Case studies and Passage Based Questions will be asked, So practice these types of questions. Study Rate is always there to help you. Free PDF Downloads of CBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction Case Study and Passage-Based Questions with Answers were Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve Class 12 Biology Case Study Questions Human Reproduction  to know their preparation level.

Join our Telegram Channel, there you will get various e-books for CBSE 2024 Boards exams for Class 9th, 10th, 11th, and 12th.

In CBSE Class 12 Biology Paper, There will be a few questions based on case studies and passage-based as well. In that, a paragraph will be given, and then the MCQ questions based on it will be asked.

Human Reproduction Case Study Questions With Answers

Here, we have provided case-based/passage-based questions for Class 12 Biology  Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

Case Study/Passage-Based Questions

(i) Which of the following is correct for labeled part P?

Answer: (b) P is epididymis which secretes fluid that nourishes the sperms

(ii) Identify the correctly matched pair.

Answer: (b) R – Ejaculatory duct

(iii) Which statement is incorrect for Q?

Answer: (c) It arises from rete testis.

(iv) Which structure passes through the prostate gland and carries sperms and secretion of seminal vesicles?

Answer: (d) R

(v ) Assertion:  Mucus present in the secretion of the bulbourethral gland decreases the number of sperms damaged during ejaculation Reason:  Mucus lubricates the end of the penis and the lining of the urethra. (a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (b) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. (c) Assertion is true but the reason is false. (d) Both assertion and reason are false.

Answer: (a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Case Study 2: The first menstruation is called menarche, which usually occurs between 12 and 15 years. In human females, menstruation is repeated at an average interval of about 28129 days and is called a menstrual cycle. It is regulated by certain hormones, as the pituitary gland is stimulated by releasing factors produced in the hypothalamus. The hormones produced by the pituitary gland influence the ovaries. The hormones secreted by the ovaries affect the walls of the uterus.

What is the term used to describe a female’s first menstruation? A) Menopause B) Menarche C) Ovulation D) Menstrual Cycle

At what age does menarche usually occur? A) 6-9 years B) 12-15 years C) 18-21 years D) 25-28 years

What is the average interval of the menstrual cycle in human females? A) 28-29 days B) 14-16 days C) 40-45 days D) 10-12 days

Which gland is stimulated by releasing factors produced in the hypothalamus to regulate the menstrual cycle? A) Thyroid gland B) Adrenal gland C) Pancreas D) Pituitary gland

How do the hormones produced by the pituitary gland influence the menstrual cycle? A) They influence the kidneys B) They influence the ovaries C) They influence the liver D) They influence the lungs

Hope the information shed above regarding Case Study and Passage Based Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 3 Human Reproduction with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries about CBSE Class 12 Biology Human Reproduction Case Study and Passage Based Questions with Answers, feel free to comment below so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible. By Team Study Rate

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Biology Question Bank for Class 12

Chapter 4: reproductive health, chapter summary.

          Reproductive health refers to a total well-being in all aspects of reproduction, i.e., physical, emotional, behavioural and social. Our nation was the first nation in the world to initiate various action plans at national level towards attaining a reproductively healthy society.              Counselling and creating awareness among people about reproductive organs, adolescence and associated changes, safe and hygienic sexual practices, sexually transmitted infections (STIs) including AIDS, etc., is the primary step towards reproductive health. Providing medical facilities and care to the problems like menstrual irregularities, pregnancy related aspects, delivery, medical termination of pregnancy, STIs, birth control, infertility, post natal child and maternal management is another important aspect of the Reproductive and Child Health Care programmes.             An overall improvement in reproductive health has taken place in our country as indicated by reduced maternal and infant mortality rates, early detection and cure of STIs, assistance to infertile couples, etc. Improved health facilities and better living conditions promoted an explosive growth of population. Such a growth necessitated intense propagation of contraceptive methods. Various contraceptive options are available now such as natural, traditional, barrier, IUDs, pills, injectables, implants and surgical methods. Though contraceptives are not regular requirements for reproductive health, one is forced to use them to avoid pregnancy or to delay or space pregnancy.            Medical termination of pregnancy is legalised in our country. MTP is generally performed to get rid of unwanted pregnancy due to rapes, casual relationship, etc., as also in cases when the continuation of pregnancy could be harmful or even fatal to either the mother, or the foetus or both.          Infections or diseases transmitted through sexual intercourse are called Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STIs). Pelvic Inflammatory Diseases (PIDs), still birth, infertility are some of the complications of them. Early detection facilitate better cure of these diseases. Avoiding sexual intercourse with unknown/multiple partners, use of condoms during coitus are some of the simple precautions to avoid contracting STIs.             Inability to conceive or produce children even after 2 years of unprotected sexual cohabitation is called infertility. Various methods are now available to help such couples. In Vitro fertilisation followed by transfer of embryo into the female genital tract is one such method and is commonly known as the ‘Test Tube Baby’ Programme.

VERY SHORT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

1. what is the objective of rch.

Answer: The objective of reproductive health are:

• Creating awareness among people about various reproduction related aspects.
• Providing facilities and support for building up a reproductively healthy society.

2. What are sexually transmitted diseases? Why are they considered self- invited diseases?

Answer: Sexually transmitted diseases are those that are transmitted through sexual intercourse. HIV, Gonorrhea are some of the sexually transmitted diseases .

These are said to be self-invited because people fall prey to these diseases by:

• Having sex with unknown or multiple partners.
• Not using protection during coitus.
• Ignoring the symptoms of the disease.

3. Describe the lactational Amenorrhoea method of birth control.

Answer: Lactational Amenorrhoea refers to the absence of menstruation during the period of intense lactation following parturition.

• Ovulation and menstrual cycle doesn’t occur during this period
• This method is effective only up to maximum six month following parturition.

4. Identify a, b, c and d in the following table with reference to birth control?

a- Barrier method                    

b- Tubectomy

c- Oral contraceptive               

d- Intra Uterine Device

5. Why are the males whose testes fail to descend to the scrotum considered infertile?

Answer: The testes are temperature sensitive. If they fail to descend in the scrotum before puberty, they will not produce sperms. Hence the male will be infertile.

6. What is Amniocentesis Test?

Answer: The medical test or a procedure mainly used for the determination of sex of an unborn baby through analyzing the chromosomal content of the amniotic fluid surrounding the foetus is called the amniocentesis test.

Why are copper containing intrauterine devices considered an ideal contraceptive for human female ?

Answer:  Copper containing contraceptives functions as follows:

• It suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperm.
• It increases phagocytosis of sperm within the uterus.

8. Condoms are the most popular contraceptive devices used by human males. Give reasons.

Answer: ( i) Condoms provide an additional benefit of protection from STDs and AIDS.

(ii) They don’t interfere with the sexual act of the user.

(iIi) They are disposable and are easily available.

(iv) As they are self inserted, they give privacy to users.

9. How are implants act as an effective method of contraception in human female? Mention it’s one advantage over contraceptive pills?

Answer:  Implants are progesterone or estrogen-progesterone combinations that work by:

i)                   Inhibiting ovulation

ii)                Inhibiting implantation

iii)              Changing the quality of cervical mucus to retard sperm entry.

The effective periods of implants are much longer than pills.

10. Mention the early symptoms of STDs?

Answer:  The early symptoms of STDs are:

i)                Itching

ii)                Fluid discharge

iii)              Slight pain and

iv)              Swelling

11. How is IUT different from IUI?

12. Enlist the probable cause of infertility?

Answer:  The reason of infertility are:

(i) Heredity or congenital cause

(ii) Use of certain drugs

(iii) Immunological response

(iv) Psychological

13. Female gametes are transferred to the fallopian tube in the GIFT procedure. Is it possible to transfer the gametes to the uterus?

Answer: It is not possible to transfer the gametes to the uterus. This is because the gametes cannot survive in the environment of the uterus. They will be degenerated or phagocytosed if transferred directly into the uterus.

14. What are the benefits of natural contraceptive methods over artificial methods?

• The natural methods of contraception involve no side-effects.
• Unlike the artificial method, the natural method is reversible because there is no surgery involved.
• Does not require any medical supervision

15. Why is tubectomy considered a contraceptive method?

Answer: Tubectomy is the permanent method of sterilization in women. In this method, the fallopian tubes are blocked or cut so that the egg is stopped from travelling to the uterus. This eliminates any chances of

SHORT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

1. what are the important features of an ideal contraceptive.

Answer:  Following are the features of an ideal contraceptive:

• It lasts long
• It is cost-effective
• It is highly effective
• Its effect can be reversed
• It is independent of coitus
• It can be administered easily

2. Enumerate the complications that untreated STDs can lead to.

Answer:  The untreated STDs can lead to following complications:

• Pelvic Inflammatory disease(PID)
• Still births
• Ectopic pregnancy
• Infertility
• Cancer of reproductive tract

3. Name any six venereal diseases.

• Trichomoniasis
• Chlamydiasis
• genital herpes

4. Sterilisation techniques are generally full-proof methods of contraception and have the least side effects. Yet, they are the last option for the couples? What are the reasons for this?

Answer:  The reasons for opting sterilisation as the last method of contraception though it have least side effects are as follows:

• The reversibility of the technique is very poor or almost irreversible.
• Fear of surgery or invasive techniques.
• There is miss conception that it will reduce the sexual urge and day to day heavy work can’t be performed.
• Lack of sufficient facilities in many part of the country.

5. Why medical termination of pregnancy is done? Is MTP legalized in India?

Answer:  MTP is done to get rid of unwanted pregnancies either due to unprotected intercourse or failure of the contraceptives used during coitus or rapes. It is also essential in certain cases where continuation of the pregnancy could be harmful or fatal either to the foetus or mother.

Yes, Government of India legalized MTP in 1971 with some conditions to avoid its misuse

6. Mention the various precautions one has to take in order to protect himself/herself form STDs.

(i) Avoid blood transfusion from an infected person.

(ii) Avoid sex with an unknown partner or multiple partners.

(iii) Always use condoms.

(iv) Avoid sharing of injections needles and syringes and surgical instruments .

7. State the consequences of over population.

Answer:  The consequences of overpopulation are :

• An increase demand and therefore pressure on the natural resources.
• An increase in the level of pollution.
• More number of unemployment, poor infrastructure and pressure on the country’s economy.

8. Give three differences between tubectomy and vasectomy.

9. An infertile couple is advised to adopt test tube baby programme. Describe the two principal procedures adopted for such technology.

(i) In vitro fertilisation and embryo transfer are the two steps involved in a test tube baby programme.

(ii)   in this method ova from a healthy donor and the sperm from a male donor are induced to form zygote under simulated condition in a laboratory.

(iii)     The zygote or early embryo upto 8 blastomeres is transferred into the fallopian tube (ZIFT) or embryo with more than 8 blastomeres, is transferred into the uterus (IUT) for further development upto parturition.

10. (a) Name the sexually transmitted diseases that are not curable? (b) Condoms are made of which substance? (c) How the low sperm count in the ejaculation of male can be treated by ART?

(a) AIDS, Hepatitis, Genital herpes.

(b) Condoms are made of thin rubber or latex.

(c) The low sperm count in the ejaculation can be treated by artificial insemination (AI).

LONG QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

1. describe any three assisted reproductive techniques practised to treat infertility..

Answer: Assisted Reproductive Techniques refer to the medical procedures used to treat infertility. Few of the assisted reproductive techniques are:

• In-vitro Fertilization- In-vitro fertilization involves the steps: Stimulation of the ovaries by giving human gonadotropins ↓ Retrieving the released eggs ↓ Fertilization of the eggs with the selected sperms. ↓ Development of eggs into embryos under laboratory environment ↓ The embryos are implanted in the uterus of the female
• Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection- In this method, one sperm is injected into the egg. But this procedure might damage the egg. The babies might involve defects in the reproductive organs in case of the abnormal Y chromosome.
• Gamete Intrafallopian Tube Transfer- This method is used in case of fallopian tubes that are functioning properly. In this technique, the eggs and sperms obtained are not fertilized in the laboratory. They are inserted into the far end of the fallopian tube either through the vagina or through the abdomen with the help of a laparoscope.

2. What are the advantages and disadvantages of hormonal contraceptives?

Advantages of hormonal contraceptives:

• This is a highly effective method of contraception.
• It can be used for a longer period.
• Causes very light or no menstruation.
• The effects are reversible

Disadvantages of hormonal contraceptives:

• It does not protect against sexually transmitted diseases.
• Minor surgery is required to insert and remove the device.
• It has several side-effects such as irregular menstruation, depression, weight gain, hair loss, etc.
• The capsule implanted area might get infected.
• It is necessary to take the medications continuously.
• The method is expensive.

3. Explain any two sexually transmitted diseases and suggest ways to prevent them.

Answer: Sexually transmitted diseases are those that are transferred from one partner to another through sexual contact. Two sexually transmitted diseases are explained below:

1. AIDS– The Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). This virus attacks the immune system of the host making him vulnerable to infections. It can be spread through semen, blood, breastmilk, and rectal or vaginal fluids.

2. Genital Herpes- Herpes is a chronic disease spread by the Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV). The HSV type 2 virus spreads the disease through sexual intercourse. A person suffering from genital herpes will show symptoms like fever, pain while urinating, vaginal discharge, red blisters on the genitals, etc.

Prevention of Sexually Transmitted Diseases:

• Use protection during sexual intercourse.
• Get vaccinated for Hepatitis and Human Papillomavirus
• Get tested for HIV
• Abstain from sexual activities
• Do not share the undergarments and towels.

4. Why should sex education be introduced to school-going children? List any five reasons.

Answer:  Sex education should be introduced to school going children for the following reasons:

• To make the students aware that the bodily changes they are experiencing during puberty are absolutely normal and natural.
• To help them speak up when they face any sexual harassment in society.
• The students will get to know about the facts of life from a supportive source instead of some absurd show or movie.
• They will be made aware of the risks involved in having sex.

5. (a) All reproductive tract infections are STDs but not all STDs are reproductive tract infection . Justify with an example. (b) Expand the following. ICSI, GIFT, ZIFT, IUT, IUI

(a) all reproductive tract infections (RTI) such as syphilis, gonorrhoea, genital herpes etc are transmitted through sexual intercourse with an infected person, hence they are called STDs.

But there are diseases like AIDS, hepatitis B which are also transmitted through sexual intercourse, but they don’t specifically infect reproductive organs, hence are not called reproductive tract infections. (RTI).

• ICSI- Intra-cytoplasmic sperm injection
• GIFT- Gamete intra fallopian transfer
• ZIFT- Zygote intra fallopian transfer
• IUT- Intra-uterine transfer
• IUI- Intra uterine insemination

COMPETANCY BASED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

Population in Odisha is 42 million where youth constitute one fifth of it. The unmet need of family planning is 19%. Modern contraceptive prevalence rate in Odisha is 46.3% . The different contraceptive measures adopted are represented below in a pie chart.

Answer the following question based on your concept on Reproductive health and the above mentioned pie chart.

1. From the pie chart write which family planning method is most popular in Odisha?

Answer: The female sterilisation method is most popular in Odisha.

2. How can the use of condoms be advocated?

Answer:  By creating awareness among the people that,it don’t have

• any side effects
• gives privacy to the user
• don’t need medical assistance

3. Why there is prevalence of female sterilisation over male sterilisation?

(i)Still there is a belief in society that female are more responsible for reproduction related problems.

(ii) Male are not going for sterilisation because of social stigma.

Q4. How can as an aware citizen you motivate the young couple to adopt the family planning methods?

(i) By briefing them the benefit of small family.

(ii) By creating awareness among them regarding the family planning methods and it’s benefits.

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Notes Station: To Read Click on Title

Class 12 biology chapter 3 human reproduction, class 12 biology chapter 2 sexual reproduction in flowering plants, class 12 biology chapter 13 organism and populations, class 12 biology chapter 12 biotechnology and its applications, class 12 biology chapter 11 biotechnology: principles and processes, class 12 biology chapter 10 microbes in human welfare, class 12 biology chapter 8 human health and disease, class 12 biology chapter 1 reproduction in organism, book cart: to purchase click on title.

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CBSE Important Questions Class 12 Biology Chapter 4

Home » CBSE » CBSE Important Questions Class 12 Biology Chapter 4

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Important Question Class 12 Biology Chapter 4

I mportant questions for cbse class 12 biology chapter 4 – reproductive health.

Reproduction is a biological process through which an organism gives birth to its offspring. This process is essential for the existence and continuity of life on earth. People, however, often do not take care of their reproductive health in the way they care about their physical health. Unresolved reproductive problems may cause critical diseases at a later stage. The significance of reproductive health is not limited to the normal functioning of male and female organs, but rather has broader implications for physical, social, and mental well-being of individuals related to the reproductive system. Important Questions Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 will help students practise more questions from the chapter to enhance their preparation and get a 100% score in the board exams.

CBSE Class 12 Chapter 4 – Important Questions 

Important questions of cbse class 12 biology chapter 4 – reproductive health, 1 mark very short answer questions.

Q.1. Which technique is used to transfer an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce ova but can provide a suitable environment for fertilisation and development?

Ans. The technique that involves the transfer of an ovum from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female is known as Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer.

Q.2. Write the name of the prenatal diagnostic technique developed to know the sex of a developing foetus and detect congenital anomalies.

Ans. Amniocentesis is the prenatal diagnostic technique developed to determine the sex of a developing foetus and detect congenital disorders.

Q.3. Write the full forms of the following:

Ans. The full forms of the acronyms are as follows:

• GMT → Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer
• IUCD → Intrauterine Contraceptive Devices

Q.4. What is lactation amenorrhea?

Ans. Lactation amenorrhea is a period of temporary infertility in lactating mothers.

Q.5. How can the chromosomal disorders of a foetus be detected?

Ans. Fetal cells and substances extracted from the amniotic fluid are analysed to detect chromosomal disorders in a foetus.

Q.6. Write the name of the oral contraceptive pill developed by the Central Drug Research Institute of India.

Ans. Saheli is an oral contraceptive pill developed by the Central Drug Research Institute of India as a measure of birth control.

Q.7. Write the names of the causative agents of syphilis and gonorrhoea.

Ans. The causative agents of syphilis and gonorrhoea are Treponema Pallidum and Neisseria Gonorrhoeae respectively.

2 Marks Short Answer  Questions

Q.1. Why is  lactational amenorrhea  considered a natural method of contraception? How long does it remain effective?

Ans. Females cannot conceive during the period of lactational amenorrhea because the natural process of ovulation does not occur during this period. Hence, lactational amenorrhea is considered a natural method of contraception.

This method remains effective up to six months following parturition.

Q.2. Write down four reasons for infertility.

Ans .  Infertility in females could be due to  many reasons. The four most common  reasons among them are:

• Immunological

Q.3. How does copper-T act as a contraceptive?

Ans. Copper-T is an IntraUterine Device that diffuses into the uterus and releases toxic cytokines to suppress the motility of sperm, which reduces the chances of fertilisation.

Q.4. Explain in brief any two natural methods of birth control.

Ans. The two natural methods of birth control are mentioned below:

• Periodic Abstinence: In this method, the couple abstains from coitus from the tenth to the seventeenth day of the menstrual cycle, as chances of fertilisation are very high during this period. This period is called the fertile period.
• Coitus Interruptus: In this method, the male partner withdraws his organ to avoid ejaculation in the female vagina.

Q.5. How are non-medicated IUDS different from hormone-releasing devices? Give examples.

Ans. The difference between non-medicated IUDS and hormone-releasing devices is given below.

Q.6. What is a vasectomy?

Ans. Vasectomy is a surgical method of birth control in which a small part of the vas deferens of a male is severed or tied up through a small incision on the scrotum to block the transport of gametes in the female body. Although highly effective, it is almost an irreversible technique.

Q.7. What are MTPs? Under what conditions are MTPs legal in India?

Ans. MTP is an abbreviated form of medical termination of pregnancy.

MTPs are legal in India under the following conditions:

• The conception happened due to casual, unprotected cohabitation.
• The contraceptives used during cohabitation did not work.
• There is a risk to the life of the mother, the foetus, or both.

Q.8. Write down any four objectives of the Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme.

Ans. The four major objectives of the Reproductive and Child Health Care programme,, or RCHC are as follows:

• To create awareness among people of various aspects of reproduction including STDs, birth control measures, etc.
• To provide medical facilities and care for the problems related to reproduction like menstrual irregularities, infertility, etc.
• To provide postnatal child care and maternal management.
• To remove stereotypical ideas about sex-related crimes.

3 Marks Long Answer Questions

Q.1. What are the other names for sexually transmitted diseases? Names of two STDs that are curable and two diseases that are not curable.

Ans. The other names for sexually transmitted diseases are: Venereal Disease (VD) and Reproductive Tract Infection (RTI).

The two curable STDs are: Syphilis and Gonorrhea.

The two non-curable STDs are: Hepatitis B and AIDS.

Q.2. How does a nation keep track of its population growth? Write down two differences between the natality rate and the mortality rate.

Ans. Natality rate and mortality rate are two methods through which the government of a nation records whether its population is increasing or decreasing.

The differences between the natality rate and the mortality rate are as follows:

Q.3. Define in vitro fertilisation? What are test tube babies?

Ans. In vitro fertilisation is a process in which the fertilisation of the ovum takes place in an artificial environment similar to that in the body.

The test tube babies are those who are born from the zygotes produced in an artificial environment by the process of in-vitro fertilisation. Like other normal babies, they grow inside the mother’s uterus.

Q.4. Describe three methods by which the fertilisation of an ovum by sperm can be prevented.

Ans. The three methods by which fertilisation of a female egg by sperm can be prevented are:

• Natural Method: In this method, the partner avoids the meeting of gametes.
• Periodic Abstinence: The couple avoids coitus during the fertile period when chances of conception are high. This period is counted from the tenth day to the seventeenth day of the menstrual cycle. 
• Lactational Amenorrhea: During the period of intensive lactation the ovulation process does not occur in the lactating mother’s body.
• Barrier Method: In this method, the meeting of gametes is avoided artificially.
• Condoms: These are thin barriers made up of a rubber or latex sheath to cover the penis of males or the cervix of females.
• Diaphragms Cervical Caps: These are also made up of rubber and are reusable.
• Surgical Method: In this method, the meeting of gametes is avoided by preventing the transport of the gametes.
• Vasectomy: This is the process of sterilising a male by removing a small portion of the vas deferens or tying it up through an incision on the scrotum.
• Tubectomy: In this process, small portions of the fallopian tubes of the female organ are removed or tied up through the vagina.

Q.5. What is population explosion? Discuss four reasons for the population explosion in India.

Ans. The term population explosion refers to the rapid increase in the number of people in a given area.

The four probable reasons for the population explosion in India are mentioned below.

• The improvement of healthcare facilities has increased the average lifespan of men.
• Better living conditions are another reason for population growth.
• The practice of early marriage continues in certain rural areas.
• The lack of education and awareness in poor families also contributes to the population explosion in India.

Important Questions of Chapter 4 Biology Class 12 

Chapter 4 Class 12 Biology Important Questions aims to help students practise more questions before the board exam. Students have to learn the concepts well to understand the differences among the various methods. They have to memorise the terminologies associated with reproduction. Class 12 Chapter 4 Biology Important Questions will help them revise the chapter as well as get an idea of what kind of questions they should prepare for the CBSE exam. The NCERT Books of the latest CBSE Syllabus and the questions from the past years have been consulted by the subject matter experts before preparing the questionnaires  so that all the important topics are  covered. Students can rely on this questionnaire to practise extra questions to get a few extra marks.

Chapter 4 – Reproductive Health

Reproductive health refers to the physical, social, and psychological well-being of individuals in all matters related to reproduction. India is one of the first countries to take measures at the national level to attain a reproductively healthy society.

Creating awareness about reproductive health among the masses is mandatory to address problems like infertility, sexual diseases, the health of pregnant women, post-natal child care, etc. With the amniocentesis process, it became possible to know the sex of unborn babies. However, the growing misuse of this technique for female feticide led the Indian government to ban it in the country.

 The increase in population has put  pressure on the country’s natural resources and economy also increases. So, the birth rate should be controlled to avoid the consequences of overpopulation. Natural methods, barrier methods, surgical methods, oral contraceptive pills, IUDS, etc. are effective to control the natality rate. MTPs are legalised in India to avoid undesired pregnancies due to rape, casual relationships, or possible harm to the fetus, the mother, or both. Thus, MTPs also help keep population growth in check.

Nowadays, infertile couples can also have children through various methods. In-vitro fertilisation is the most common of them. In this process, fertilisation takes place outside the body, and then the embryo is transferred into the uterus. Babies born by this method are called test tube babies. In-vivo fertilisation, intra-cytoplasmic sperm injections, artificial insemination, intrauterine insemination, etc. are other effective processes of conception.

However, one should not overlook sexual disorders. Unprotected cohabitation may cause non-curable diseases like AIDS, other pelvic inflammatory diseases, stillbirth, and even infertility. The reasons for these diseases could be manifold, but drug consumption, physical and psychological problems, heredity, etc. are the most common of them. It is noteworthy that, if an individual faces any problem related to reproduction, especially in the case of diseases, they should consult medical professionals immediately to prevent further complications.

Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Important Questions include  graded questions with varying levels of difficulty. The solutions are also provided here to help students save time and ensure thorough preparation of each and every question. Students should practise the questions before the exam to recapitulate the concepts and various terms related to reproduction. This set of important questions  will help the students with a deep understanding of concepts so that they can handle any tricky questions and get excellent marks in the board exams.

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FAQs (Frequently Asked Questions)

1. why is amniocentesis banned in india.

Amniocentesis can also be used to detect congenital disorders and determine the gender of the foetus which is often misused by people. Therefore Indian government has banned amniocentesis to prevent female foeticide.

2. When did India adopt the “family planning” programme?

In 1951, India initiated the “family planning” programme.

3. What is sterilisation?

Sterilisation is a surgical method for preventing pregnancy.

CBSE Related Links

Case Based Questions – Class 12 Biology

As per the CBSE sample papers released this year, there will be one case based question in the section-C. There will be a total of 6 questions based on the given case. This post Case Based Questions – Class 12 Biology has the links to chapter wise case based questions.

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NCERT Solutions for Class 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 and 12

Biology MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

November 15, 2019 by Veerendra

Free PDF Download of CBSE Biology Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 4 Reproductive Health. Biology MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Biology Reproductive Health MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Reproductive Health Class 12 Biology MCQs Pdf

Question 1. Which of the following is ART? (a) IUDs (b) GIFT (c) ZIFT (d) Both (b) & (c) Answer: (d) Both (b) & (c)

Question 2. The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females (a) who cannot produce an ovum (b) who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus (c) who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation (d) all of these Answer: (a) who cannot produce an ovum

Question 3. Which method can be used for women that cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable environment ? (a) IUD (b) GIFT (c) IUI (d) ICSI Answer: (b) GIFT

Question 4. Which of these can be used to cure infertility in couples where male partner has very low sperm count ? (a) IUD (b) GIFT (c) IUI (d) None of these Answer: (c) IUI

Question 5. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called (a) GIFT (b) ZIFT (c) ICSI (d) ET Answer: (c) ICSI

Question 6. Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will (a) cause rapid increase in growth rate (b) result in decline in growth rate (c) not cause significant change in growth rate (d) result in an explosive population. Answer: (b) result in decline in growth rate

Question 7. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the (a) suppression of gonadotropins (b) hypersecretion of gonadotropins . (c) suppression of gametic transport (d) suppression of fertilisation. Answer: (a) suppression of gonadotropins

Question 8. A national level approach to build up a reproductively healthy society was taken up in our country in (a) 1950s (b) 1960s (c) 1980s (d) 1990s Answer: (a) 1950s

Question 9. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within, (a) 72 hrs of coitus (b) 72 hrs of ovulation (c) 72 hrs of menstruation (d) 72 hrs of implantation. Answer: (a) 72 hrs of coitus

Question 10. From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does not specifically affect the sex organs. (a) Syphilis (b) AIDS (c) Gonorrhea (d) Genital warts Answer: (b) AIDS

Question 11. Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons. (a) These are effective barriers for insemination. (b) They do not interfere with coital act. (c) These help in reducing the risk of STDs. (d) All of the above Answer: (d) All of the above

Question 12. The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is (a) ovariectomy (b) hysterectomy (c) vasectomy (d) castration. Answer: (c) vasectomy

Question 13. RCH stands for (a) routine check-up of health (b) reproduction cum hygiene (c) reversible contraceptive hazards (d) reproductive and child health care. Answer: (d) reproductive and child health care.

Question 14. Amminocentesis is a technique used to (a) determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo (b) pin point specific cardiac ailments in embryo (c) determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in embryo (d) all of these. Answer: (a) determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo

Question 15. Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ? (a) Jaundice (b) Down’s syndrome (c) Cystic fibrosis (d) Colourblindness Answer: (a) Jaundice

Question 16. In which of the following weeks of pregnancy CVS is done ? (a) 12th – 14th week (b) 8th – 10th week (c) 5th – 7th week (d) None of these Answer: (b) 8th – 10th week

Question 17. Causes for increased population growth in india is/are (a) increase in birth rate (b) decrease in death rate (c) lack of education (d) all of these. Answer: (d) all of these.

Question 18. Which of the following pairs contributes to an increase in population ? (a) Natality and immigration (b) Mortality and emigration (c) Natality and emigration (d) Mortality and immigration Answer: (a) Natality and immigration

Question 19. Which of the following is correct regarding the consequences of lower population ? (a) It increases the poverty of a country. (b) It leads to shortage of food supply. (c) It results in unemployment (d) All of these Answer: (d) All of these

Question 20. The best way to decrease population of a country is (a) to educate people (b) to have better houses (c) to kill people on a large scale (d) to practice and implement familay planning. Answer: (d) to practice and implement familay planning.

Question 21. Which of the following correctly describes the measures that can be used to control over-population ? (a) Educating people about the advantages of a small family (b) Raising the age of marriage (c) Encouraging family planning programme (d) All of these Answer: (d) All of these

Question 22. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal contraceptive ? (a) User-friendly (b) Irreversible (c) Easily available (d) Least side-effects Answer: (b) Irreversible

Question 23. Which of the following is correct regarding HIV, hepatitis B, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis ? (a) Trichomoniasis is an STD whereas others are not. (b) Gonorrhoea is a viral disease whereas others are bacterial. (c) HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases. (d) Hepatitis B is eradicated completely whereas others are not. Answer: (c) HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases.

Question 24. Which one of the following groups includes sexually transmitted diseases caused by bacteria only ? (a) Syphilis, gonorrhoea, chancroid (b) Syphilis, chlamydiasis, chancroid (c) Syphilis, gonorrhoea, scabies (d) Syphilis, scabies, pediculosis Answer: (a) Syphilis, gonorrhoea, chancroid

Question 25. Confirmatory test for STDs is (a) ELISA (b) PCR (c) DNA hybridisation (d) all of these. Answer: (d) all of these.

Question 26. Hepatitis B is transmitted through (a) blood transfusion (b) intimate physical contact (c) sexual contact (d) all of these Answer: (d) all of these

Question 27. The common means of transmission of AIDS is (a) sexual intercourse (b) blood transfusion (c) placental transfer (d) all of these. Answer: (d) all of these.

Question 28. Which of the following STDs are not completely curable ? (a) Chlamydiasis, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis (b) Chancroid syphilis, genital warts (c) AIDS, syphilis, hepatitis B (d) AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B Answer: (d) AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B

Question 29. World AIDS day is (a) December 21 (b) December 1 (c) November 1 (d) June 11 Answer: (b) December 1

Question 30. In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube ? (a) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage (b) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage (c) Embro of 32 cell stage (d) Zygote only Answer: (b) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage

Question 31. The test-tube baby programme employs which one of the following techniques ? (a) Zygote intra Fallopian transfer (ZIFT) (b) Intra uterine insemination (IUI) (c) Gamete intra Fallopian transfer (d) All of these Answer: (a) Zygote intra Fallopian transfer (ZIFT)

Question 32. The first case of IVF-ET technique success, was reported by (a) Louis joy Brown and Banting Best (b) Patrick Steptoe and Rebert Edwards (c) Robert Steptoe and Gilbert Brown (d) Baylis and Starling Taylor. Answer: (b) Patrick Steptoe and Rebert Edwards

Question 33. On which of the following facts does the method of periodic abstinence is based ? (a) Ovulation occurs on about the 14th day of menstruation. (b) Ovum remains alive for about 1-2 days. (c) Sperms survive for about 3 days. (d) All of these Answer: (d) All of these

Question 34. Which of the following is a non-medicated intrauterine device (IUD) ? (a) CuT (b) Lippes Loop (c) Cu7 (d) LNG-20 Answer: (b) Lippes Loop

Question 35. Multiload device contains (a) manganese (b) iron (c) copper (d) calcium Answer: (c) copper

Question 36. Which of the following is not an intrauterine device ? (a) Progestasert (b) Multiload-375 (c) Norplant (d) Lippes loop Answer: (c) Norplant

Question 37. What is the work of copper-T ? (a) To inhibit ovulation (b) To inhibit fertilisation (c) To inhibit implantation of blastocyst (d) To inhibit gametogenesis Answer: (b) To inhibit fertilisation

Question 38. IUDs prevent pregnancy by (a) inhibiting physiological and morphological uterine changes required for implantation. (b) increasing phagocytosis of spermatozoa within uterus (c) suppressing motility of sperms as well as their fertilising capacity (d) all of these. Answer: (d) all of these.

Question 39. Cu ions released from copper releasing intrauterine devices (IUDs) (a) prevent ovulation (b) make uterus unsuitable for implantation (c) decrease phagocytosis of sperms (d) suppress sperm motility. Answer: (d) suppress sperm motility.

Question 40. The birth control device used by women is (a) diaphragm (b) vault (c) copper T (d) all of these. Answer: (d) all of these.

Question 41. The most important component of oral contraceptive pills is (a) progesterone-estrogen (b) growth hormore (c) thyroxine (d) luteinising hormone. Answer: (a) progesterone-estrogen

Question 42. Progesterone pill helps in preventing pregnancy by not allowing (a) ova formation (b) fertilisation (c) implantation (d) none of these. Answer: (a) ova formation

Question 43. What is true about “Saheli” ? (i) Developed at the CDRI, Lucknow (ii) Contains a steroidal preparation (iii) “Once-a-weak” pill (iv) Many side effects (v) High contraceptive value (vi) Very few side effects value (vii) Low contraceptive value (a) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (vi) (b) (i), (iii), (v), (vi), (vii) (c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (d) (i), (iii), (iv), (v) Answer: (d) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)

Question 45. Which of the following birth control measures can be considered as the safest ? (a) The rhythm method (b) The use of physical barriers (c) Termination of unwanted pregnancy (d) Sterilisation techniques Answer: (d) Sterilisation techniques

Question 46. Which of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India at present ? (a) Cervical caps (b) Tubectomy (c) Diaphragms (d) IUDs (Intra uterine devices) Answer: (d) IUDs (Intra uterine devices)

Question 47. Which of the following is a full proof method contraception ? (a) Implantation (b) Lactational amenorrhea (c) Condoms (d) Sterilisation Answer: (d) Sterilisation

Question 48. Which of the following statements is correct regarding vasectomy ? (a) It prevents the production of sperm in the testes. (b) It prevents the production of semen. (c) It prevents the movement of sperm into the urethra. (d) It prevents a man from having an erection. Answer: (c) It prevents the movement of sperm into the urethra.

Question 49. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) ? (a) These help in getting rid of unwanted pregnancies. (b) These help in aborting the pregnancies which may be harmful to either mother of foetus or both. (c) These contribute in decreasing the human population. (d) None of these. Answer: (d) None of these.

Question 50. Which of the following represents the correct match of a sexually transmitted disease with its pathogen ? (a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum (b) Gonorrhoea-Entamoeba histolytica (c) Urethritis-Bacillus anthracis (d) Softsore-Bacillus brevis Answer: (a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum

Question 51. The sexually transmitted disease, that can affect both the male and the female genitals and may damage the eyes of babies born of infected mothers is (a) AIDS (b) syphilis (c) gonorrhoea (d) hepatitis Answer: (c) gonorrhoea

Question 52. A sexually transmitted disease symptomised by the development of chancre on the genitals is caused by the infection of (a) Treponema pallidum (b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae (c) human immunodeficiency virus (d) hepatitis B virus Answer: (a) Treponema pallidum

We hope the given Biology MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 4 Reproductive Health will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Biology Reproductive Health MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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CBSE 12th Standard Biology Subject Case Study Questions With Solution 2021 Part - II

By QB365 on 21 May, 2021

QB365 Provides the updated CASE Study Questions for Class 12 Biology, and also provide the detail solution for each and every case study questions . Case study questions are latest updated question pattern from NCERT, QB365 will helps to get  more marks in Exams

QB365 - Question Bank Software

12th Standard CBSE

Final Semester - June 2015

Case Study Questions

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below: A woman unable to conceive after many years of regular unprotected coitus went to specialised infertility clinic. On complete examination, woman was found to be normal while male partner was diagnosed with infertility. Male partner is unable to copulate the female. Couple was advised to opt for assisted reproductive technology (ART). (i) Which ART could have been useful for this couple?

(ii) In which of the following infertility issues could this technique be used?

(iii) Which among the following techniques is useful to conceive when there is very low sperm count?

(iv) Assertion: Artificial insemination (AI) is intra-uterine insemination. Reason: In AI, sperms collected from donor are introduced into the uterus.

(v) Success rate of artificial insemination technique is

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below : Riya studies in II standard in a government schooL She belongs to a backward family and her parents did not get her properly vaccinated according to immunisation programme. Once while playing in school playground she fell down due to weakness and developed high fever, headache and stiffness in her neck. Identify the illness she could be suffering from and answer the following questions. (i) The microbe responsible for Riyas illness could be

(ii) Which vaccine, if administered earlier, would have saved Riya from the illness she unfortunately contracted?

(iii) The disease that Riya has contracted spreads through

(iv) Riya can spread her illness to other children through

(v) Assertion: Polio produces inflammation of the nervous system. Reason: Stiffness of the neck, paralysis of particular skeletal muscle is an important symptom of polio.

(ii) The given graph indicates that person Y is suffering from

(iii) Which of the following conditions are common in person Y?

(iv) A person suffering from diabetes mellitus becomes weak because

(v) Assertion: Type I diabetes involves failure of insulin to facilitate the movement of glucose into cells. Reason : Type II diabetes is caused by failure of beta cells to produce adequate amount of insulin due to beta cell depletion.

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below : Turner's syndrome is an example of mono somy. It is formed by the union of an allosome free egg and a normal 'X' containing sperm or a normal egg and an allosome free sperm. The individual has 2n = 45 chromosomes (44 + X0) instead of 46. Such individuals are sterile females who have rudimentary ovaries, under developed breasts, small uterus, short stature, webbed neck and abnormal intelligence. They may not menstruate or ovulate. This disorder can be treated by giving female sex hormone to the women from the age of puberty to make them develop breasts and have menstruation. This makes them feel more normal. (i) Number of Barr body present in a female with Turner's syndrome is

(ii) Turner's syndrome is an example of

(iii) Turner's syndrome is a/an

(iv) Which of the following statements regarding Turner's syndrome is incorrect?

(v) Assertion : Turner's syndrome is caused due to absence of anyone of the X and Y sex chromosome. Reason : Individuals suffering from Turner's syndrome show masculine as well as feminine development

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below: Aditya went to his hometown located in countryside along with his parents during his summer vacations. His grand parents' house is surrounded by farmland from all sides. Lots of crops were growing nearby and Aditya was very excited to visit the crop fields. He seeked permission from his mother to play in farmland along with his friends and then went to play in the fields. On returning back he had running nose, watering eyes and continuous sneezing which was very frequent. The symptoms worsened with time. Based on the above information, answer the following questions. (i) What could be the possible reason for Adityas condition?

(ii) How can allergy be diagnosed in a person?

(iii) The symptoms which Aditya developed on account of being allergic are consequence of

(iv) Name the type of allergy that Aditya developed.

(v) Assertion: Hay fever is the form of allergy due to pollens of grasses and other plants. Reason : Hay fever symptoms are due to release of histamines and often respond well to treatment with antihistamines.

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to  (v) given below: A group of teenagers was involved in drug abuse. They used syringes and needles to inject drugs. They indulged in this habit when they became adults. Administration of drug through needles became a piece of cake for them. Raj was the most active drug abuser amongst them and used to take drugs in high profile parties. In a span of time he started losing weight and suffered persistent diarrhoea. He developed constant low grade fever and used to catch opportunistic infection. When he consulted a doctor, he got himself tested for HIV in his blood and finally diagnosed with AIDS. Based on the above information, answer the following questions. (i) Select the incorrect statement.

(ii) How do you think Raj got AIDS infection?

(iii) How AIDS can be diagnosed?

(iv) How can AIDS be prevented?

(v) Select the correct statement for AIDS virus.

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below: Kangaroo rat seldom drinks water. It has thick coat to minimise evaporative desiccation. The animal seldom comes out of its comparatively humid and cool burrow during the day time. 90% of its water requirement is met from metabolic water (water produced by respiratory breakdown of fats) while 10% is obtained from its food. Loss of water is minimised by producing nearly solid urine and faeces. As the animal faces acute water scarcity, it develops two types of adaptations: reducing water loss and ability to tolerate desert conditions. (i) Kangaroo rat is a

(ii) Metabolic water refers to

(iii) Desert animals minimise water loss by

(iv) Assertion : Kangaroo rat can tolerate and thrive in wide temperature range and is known as stenothermal. Reason: Kangaroo rats go into hibernation during winter to escape cold weather.

(v) The adaptations in an organism are meant for

(ii) Total number of individuals of a species per unit area per unit time is called

(iii) Which of the following is correct regarding age sex pyramid A and B?

(iv) A population with a large proportion of older individuals than younger ones will likely to

(v ) Assertion: Bell shaped age pyramid represents a stable population. Reason : In a stable population, proportion of individuals in reproductive age group is higher than the individuals in pre-reproductive age group.

(ii) Which of the following associations is an example of competitions?

(iii) If '+ ' sign is assigned to beneficial interaction, '-' sign to detrimental and 0 sign to neutral interaction, then the population interaction of competition refers to

(iv) Intraspecific competition is more severe due to

(v) Assertion: Two members of a competing species may co-exist. Reason: Different individuals of a species have different resource requirements.

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below: The Kakapo is the world's largest and heaviest parrot, found only in New Zealand. It is unusual in that it is nocturnal, flightless and ground-dwelling. It is an excellent climber of trees, has strong legs that allow it to "jog" several kilometres in a single trip, and has mossy green plumage mottled with brown and yellow. The Kakapo is also critically endangered as of now, there were only few known living individuals left. (i) Which could be the possible reason for Kakapo to be well-adapted to its environment prior to the arrival of humans in New Zealand?

(ii) When humans started to settle in New Zealand, they took with them non-native animals, including mammals such as cats, dogs and stoats. By which of the following ways, human settlement likely contributed to a near decimation of Kakapo populations in New Zealand?

(iii) All known survived Kakapo have been relocated by the New Zealand government to three predator-free islands, where they are monitored year round by staffs and volunteers to ensure that the birds are safe, healthy and well-fed. The extremely low population of Kakapo is a hurdle to the species becoming viable in the long term, despite such dedicated conservation efforts. This is because

(iv) The reasons behind conserving biodiversity have been grouped into which of the following categories?

(v) One of the ex situ conservation methods for endangered species is

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below: Non-native or alien species are often introduced in advertently for their economic and other uses. They often become invasive and drive away-the local species. Exotic species have proved harmful to both aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems. For example, water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes) was introduced in Indian waters to reduce pollution. It was clogged water bodies including wetlands at many places resulting in death of several aquatic plants and animals. (i) Island water ecosystem are the most vulnerable due to

(ii) Which of the following is not an alien species?

(iii) Second major cause of species extinction is

(iv) Assertion: Eichhornia crassipes drains off oxygen from water and can be seen growing in standing water. Reason: Eichhornia crassipes is an indigenous species of India.

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below: Golden rice was engineered from normal rice by Potrykus and Beyer in the 1990s. The typical golden colour is due to the production of \(\beta\)  carotene a precursor of vitamin - A. Golden rice differs from its parental strain by the addition of three \(\beta\)  carotene genes. These included two genes from daffodil plant and third from a bacterium. The incorporation of these genes allows the rice plant to modify certain metabolic pathways in its cells to produce \(\beta\) -carotene. (i) Due to genetic modification golden rice plants produce and store  \(\beta\)  - carotene in

(ii) Transfer of genes to produce golden rice is achieved by

(iii) In golden rice two genes were taken from

(iv) Golden rice is helpful to fight against disease caused by the deficiency of

(v) Golden rice was genetically engineered by

Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below: Transgenic cows have extra gene or genes inserted into their DNA. Firstly the genes for the desired product is identified and sequenced. Then a gene construct containing this desired gene is introduced into female cow cells. Transgenic bovine cells are selected and fused with bovine oocytes that have had all of their chromosomes removed. Once fused with the oocyte, the transgenic cells chromosomes are reprogrammed to direct development into an embryo which can be implanted into a recipient cow. The resulting transgenic cow only express the trans gene in her milk. This is because expression of the trans gene is controlled by a promoter specific to lactating mammary cells. The first transgenic cow was 'Rosie: (i) The gene construct with desired gene is introduced into female cow cells by

(ii) Production of transgenic cow fulfill the objective of

(iii) The name of first transgenic cow is

(iv) Transgenic cow is produced through the implantation of _____containing transgene into recipient cow.

(v) Assertion : Transgenes only express in the mammary glands of transgenic cow. Reason : Transgenes are present in chromosomes of every cell in transgenic cow

(ii) Equation for relationship (A) between species richness and area is

(iii) What is the value of slope of line or regression coefficient Z for frugivorous birds?

(iv) The shape of curve for relationship between species richness and areas for wide variety of taxa is

(v) Who gave this concept of increase in species richness with increasing offered area?

(ii) The following is a list of some stages involved in producing human insulin from genetically engineered bacteria. 1. The bacteria are cultured in a fermenter for large scale production. 2. Recombinant insulin is extracted from the bacterial cells that expresses insulin gene. 3. The same restriction enzyme is used again to cut the bacterial plasmid for insertion of the human insulin gene. 4. Bacteria take up the plasmid carrying the insulin gene. 5. A restriction enzyme is used to cut human DNA to extract the insulin gene. Select the correct order of these stages.

(iii) To insert the insulin gene into bacterial DNA, both the bacterial plasmid and the human chromosome containing the insulin gene are treated with the same restriction enzyme. Using the same restriction enzyme ensures that

(iv) Why is the fermentor important for the production of human insulin by transgenic bacteria

(v) A bacteriologist carries out his first attempt at engineering E.coli with the gene for human insulin. During the process, he realises that his stock of DNA ligase has depleted but decides to continue anyway. What is a likely consequence of his decision?

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Cbse 12th standard biology subject case study questions with solution 2021 part - ii answer keys.

(i) (c) : Artificial Insemination (AI) is done in infertility cases either due to inability of male partner to copulate the female or due to very low sperm count in the semen of male partner. (ii) (b) : Oligospermia is very low sperm count. (iii) (d): ICSI is intra cytoplasmic sperm injection. (iv) (a) (v) (a)

(i) (b) : Riya is suffering from polio that is caused by an Enterovirus, called Poliovirus. (ii) (a) (iii) (c) : Polio virus enters the body via alimentary canal (faecal oral route) (iv) (a): Riya has contracted polio which is transmitted through faecal oral route, as urine and faeces of the patient contain polio virus. (v) (b)

(i) (c) : Blood sugar level fluctuations in person X indicate that sugar level never exceed the normal limit and sufficient secretion of insulin at required times removes any extra sugar from blood and converts it into glycogen for future use. This implies that person X is normal and healthy. (ii) (a) : Elevated blood sugar levels in person Y indicate that he is suffering from diabetes mellitus. (iii) (d): (iv) (d): (v) (d) : Type I diabetes or insulin dependent diabetes mellitus or juvenile diabetes is an autoimmune disorder caused by failure of beta cells to produce adequate amount of insulin. Type II diabetes or non insulin dependent diabetes mellitus involves failure of insulin to facilitate the movement of glucose into body cells.

(i) (a) : Barr body is a structure consisting of a condensed X chromosome that is found in nondividing nuclei of female mammals. The presence of Barr body is used to confirm the sex of athletes in sex determination tests. It is named after the Canadian anatomist M.L. Barr, who identified it. The number of Barr bodies is one less than total number of X chromosomes. In Turner's syndrome genotype is 45 + X0,so, the number of Barr body is O. (ii) (a) : Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division result in the gain or loss of a chromosomes called aneuploidy. For example, Turner's syndrome results due to loss of X chromosome in human females. (iii) (d) : Turner's syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that occurs due to absence of one chromosome. (iv) (c) : In Turner's syndrome individual lacks one X chromosome. This situation is known as monosomy. (v) (d): Turner's syndrome occurs due to absence of X chromosome. Individuals having a single X chromosome 22A + X0 (45) have female sexual differentiation but ovaries are rudimentary. Other associated phenotypes of this condition are short stature, webbed-neck, broad chest, lack of secondary sexual characteristics and sterility. Thus, any imbalance in the copies of the sex chromosomes may disrupt the genetic information necessary for normal sexual development.

(i) (a) : Aditya most probably had developed some sort of allergy due to pollens of grasses, trees and other plants. (ii) (a) : Allergies mainly involve IgE antibodies and chemicals like histamine and serotonin from mast cells. IgE antibodies are produced in response to an antigen, coat mast cells and basophils. (iii) (a) : The allergy which Aditya developed is characterised by inflammation of membrane lining the nose and conjunctiva leading to running nose, watering eyes and constant sneezing. (iv) (c) (v) (b)

(i) (d) : Every year, December 1 is designated as World AIDS Day. (ii) (d) (iii) (a) : ELISA test, also called EIA for enzyme immunoassay is used to detect HIV antibody. It checks for certain proteins that the body makes in response to HIY. (iv) (d) (v) (c) : HIV is spherical with a diameter of 90-120 nm. Its genome consists of single stranded RNA. The envelope consists of a lipid bilayer derived from host cell membrane and projection knob like glycoproteins. It contains two protein coats.

(i) (c) : Kangaroo rat is a regulator that performs homeostasis through thermoregulation osmoregulation by physiological adjustments and behavioural changes. (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv) (d) : Organisms that can tolerate and thrive in wide temperature range are known as eurythermal. Kangaroo rats do not go into hibernation rather, they stay if}cool moist burrows during summer days. (v) (d): Adaptation is an attribute of an organism (morphological, physiological and behavioural) that enables it to survive and reproduce in its habitat. Adaptations lead to the formation of some specialised and peculiar features which have evolved over a long period of time through natural selection.

(i) (b) (ii) (b) : Population density is the number of individual present per unit area at a given time. (iii) (d) : A represents nearly stable population whereas B represents rapidly growing population. (iv) (c) : A population with large number of older individuals than younger ones is likely to decline since older individuals do not take part in reproduction. (v) (c): In a bell-shaped age pyramid, the number of pre-reproductive and reproductive individuals is almost equal. Post-reproductive individuals are comparatively fewer. It represents a stable population.

(i) (b): Competition is a sort of rivalry among two or more organisms for obtaining the same resources. The competition among individuals of the same species is called intraspecific competition and among members of different species is called interspecific competition. Intraspecific competition is more severe than interspecific competition due to similar needs. Now, according to the given graph, competition for water in a population leads to more root weight (mg) per leaf area (crrr'). This is because competition causes more root growth so that each sapling can derive more water from the pot. (ii) (b) : The association or interactions of Cuscuta and hedge plant is parasitism, cactus and moth is predation and orchid and mango is commensalism. (iii) (b) (iv) (d) : Intraspecific competition is more severe because of common resource, similar needs and similar adaptations. (v) (d)

(i) (d) : Since the Kakapo is nocturnal, it was active only in the night when its potential predators would not be out for hunting. With its greenish plumage, the Kakapo could likely be well camouflaged among the forest foliage in the daytime when it is resting hence evading detection by its predators. It was able to effectively hunt for food in the night given its ability to climb trees and travel significant distances over land despite lacking the ability to fly. (ii) (d): As humans settled in New Zealand, they would have cleared the land to make way for their own needs e.g., farmland, hence shrinking the natural habitats of the Kakapo. The new mammals that were introduced into the Kakapos habitats might have out-competed the Kakapo for the limited food resources available. The new mammals that were introduced might also have easily preyed on the Kakapo (e.g., by using their sense of smell), as the KakapoIikely lacked the necessary adaptations to defend itself given that such predators were never present in the past. For instance, many mammals such as cats are nocturnal and hence would prey on Kakapo when the latter are also active at night. (iii) (d) : The small populations results in a yery small gene pool, i.e., a very limited variety of alleles / traits among surviving individuals of the species. Even if the existing birds manage to breed and multiply significantly, there would be very limited genetic diversity among the resulting offspring. This would lead to reduce capacity of the species to adapt to and survive changes in the environment. There may also be reduced fitness in the offspring given increased likelihood of homozygosity of recessive harmful! deleterious alleles, which would result in these alleles being expressed to bring about unfavourable phenotypes. (iv) (d) : We should conserve biodiversity. The reason for this can be broadly divided into three categories: (i) Narrowly utilitarian (Humans derive a major part of their requirement from organisms). (ii) Broadly utilitarian (Biodiversity is fundamental to ecosystem services of nature). (iii) Ethical (Every living species has an intrinsic value, it is our moral duty not to destroy them). (v) (c): Ex situ (off site) conservation is conservation of selected rare plants/animals in places outside their natural homes. It is a desirable approach to save threatened or endangered plant or animal species from extinction. Ex situ conservation includes offsite collections, gene banks, in vitro fertilisation, cryopreservation techniques and tissue culture.

(i) (d) (ii) (d) : Pronuba yuccasella shows obligatory mutualistic relationships with Yucca. (iii) (c) : Alien species invasion is considered to be second major cause of extinction of species. (iv) (c): Eichhornia crassipes is an aquatic plant, native to Amazon basin. This plant was introduced into India for its beautiful flowers and shape of leaves. (v) (a)

(i) (b) : Golden rice is a transgenic variety of rice (Oryza sativa) which contains good quantities of \(\beta\) -carotene (provitamin A - inactive state of vitamin A). \(\beta\) -carotene is a principal source of vitamin A. Since the grains (seeds) of the rice are yellow in colour due to \(\beta\) -carotene, the rice is commonly called golden rice. (ii) (a) : Foreign genes were inserted into the genome of a tempera,te rice variety by using Agrobacterium tumefaciens as the vector. (iii) (a) : In golden rice, two genes for \(\beta\) -carotene were taken from daffodil (Narcissus sp.) and one gene from a bacterium Erwinia. (iv) (c) : Golden rice is rich in \(\beta\) -carotene which is a precursor of vitamin A. (v) (b) : Prof. Ingo Potrykus and Peter Beyer produced genetically engineered rice by introducing three gene associated with synthesis of carotene. The grains (seeds) of transgenic rice are rich in provitamin.

(i) (c) (ii) (d) : The two chief objectives of transgenic cow production are as follows: (i) increased milk and meat production and (ii) molecular farming. (iii) (c) ( iv) (b) : Transgenic bovine cells are selected and fused with bovine oocytes that have had all its chromosomes removed. Once fused with oocyte, the transgenic cells chromosomes are reprogrammed to direct development into embryo which is implanted into recipient cow. (v) (b)

(i) (b) (ii) (a) : On a logarithmic scale, the relationship between species richness and area is a straight line. (iii) (b) : The regression coefficient Z have a value of 1.15 for frugivorous birds and mammals of tropical forests of different continents. (iv) (c) (v) (b) : While exploring the wilderness South American jungles, Alexander von Humboldt found that within a region, the species richness increased with increasing area but upto a certain limit

(i) (c) :  A represents polypeptide chain C which is removed prior to insulin formation. (ii) (d) (iii) (d) : Each particular restriction enzyme produces unique sticky ends. Using the same enzyme for both the bacterial and human DNA will produce complementary sticky ends that can bind together by complementary base pairing. This would allow the human insulin gene to be inserted into the plasmid. (iv) (a) : The optimal temperature, pH, oxygen and nutrient conditions in the fermenter allow the bacteria containing the insulin gene to reproduce quickly and produce large quantities of it. (v) (c) : DNA ligase forms strong hydrogen bonds between the DNA bases on the human insulin gene and the bacterial plasmid, producing a continuous double stranded DNA loop. Without DNA ligase, the human insulin gene, despite being able to undergo complementary base pairing with the bacterial DNA at the sticky ends would not be securely inserted into the plasmid. Thus, the resulting E.coli bacteria would receive plasm ids that lack the human insulin gene.

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Extra Questions for Class 12 Biology Reproductive Health

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Extra Questions for Class 12 Biology Reproductive Health. myCBSEguide has just released Chapter Wise Question Answers for class 12 Biology.  There chapter wise Test papers with complete solutions are available for download in  myCBSEguide   website and mobile app. These Extra Questions with solution are prepared by our team of expert teachers who are teaching grade in CBSE schools for years. There are around 4-5 set of solved Biology Extra questions from each and every chapter. The students will not miss any concept in these Chapter wise question that are specially designed to tackle Board Exam. We have taken care of every single concept given in  CBSE Class 12 Biology   syllabus  and questions are framed as per the latest marking scheme and blue print issued by CBSE for Class 12.

CBSE Class 12 Biology Ch – 4 Practice Test

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CBSE Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Test Papers

• Intra-Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection
• Gamete Intra-Fallopian transfer
• Zygote Intra Fallopian transfer
• Intra-Uterine Insemination
• Senescent phase
• Exponential phase
• Stationary phase
• Louse Edwards
• Patric Steptoe
• Robert Brown
• Louise Brown
• Oral contraceptives
• Reproductive and child health care
• Regenerative and child health protection
• Reproduction and choice of health
• Rare critical health

Suggest any two contraceptive methods which are very effective to avoid emergency pregnancy.

Creating awareness about sex related aspects is an effective method to improve reproductive health of the people. (True/False)

Correct the following statements: Are all sexually transmitted diseases completely curable ?

Why is hormone releasing IUD considered as a good contraceptive to space children?

What are the suggested reasons for population explosion?

In the table given below, select and enter one correct device out of the following: Oral pill, Condom, Copper T, Saheli, Vasectomy, Diaphragm, Tubectomy, Cervical cap

What are the measures one has to take to prevent from contracting STDs?

Ratan lives in a remote village. Suddenly he comes to know that his father has arranged the marriage of his younger sister, who is only 14 years old, to a well- to -do middle aged man living in a nearby village. Ratan objected to his father’s act. Ratan was not convinced by his father’s idea that a better groom might not be available later. Ratan complained to the village head and got the problem solved. a) Did Ratan act properly by approaching the village head? Why/ Why not? b) What biological considerations made Ratan object to his father’s decision? c) What values and responsibilities did Ratan show?

Why medical termination of pregnancy is done? Is MTP legalized in India?

Define population density. What are consequences of high population density?

Ch-4 Reproductive Health

• Zygote Intra Fallopian transfer,  Explanation:  Fertilisation outside the followed by embryo transfer is called test-tube. The zygote or early embryo up to 8 blastomere could transferred into fallopian tube is called zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT).
• Exponential phase,  Explanation:  Maximum growth of individuals occurs during exponential phase of growth. This phase is followed by stationary phase of growth.
• Louise Brown,  Explanation:  First test-tube baby was born in July,1978 named Louise Brown. Test tube baby programme involve in vitro fertilisation of ovum and transplanting it in fallopian tube or uterus.
• Copper-T,  Explanation:  Copper-T is a contraceptive method under intra uterine contraceptive device which prevents the implantation and reduce the motility of sperm. It is implanted inside the uterus and works up to five years. So, it is the best method for spacing between two children.
• Reproductive and child health care,  Explanation:  RCH stands for reproductive and child health care. RCH deals with all problems related to healthy reproductive life, problems related to care during pregnancy and care of child after the birth with their immunization programme.
• Oral pills and IUDs. They may be administered within 72 hours of coitus.
• True; Creating awareness about sex related aspects provide complete necessary information about reproductive health.
• Some of the sexually transmitted diseases are curable if they are detected early and treated properly. AIDS is still an incurable disease.
• Hormone releasing IUDs makes uterus unsuitable for implantation and makes cervix hostile to sperms.
• (i) Decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate and infant mortality rate. (ii) Increase in number of people in reproductive age. (iii) Control of diseases. (iv) Better public health care and greater medical attention.

• Avoid sex with an unknown partner/ multiple partners.
• Always use condoms during intercourse.
• If any doubt, go to a qualified doctor for complete treatment.
• (a) Yes, it was necessary to stop the act since as per the government order, the minimum marriageable age of a girl is 18 years. (b) Ratan thought of the following Disadvantages of early marriage: (Any two) Forced sexual relation and denial of freedom with restriction to family bindings. Domestic violence Denial of education Reproductive health problems Teenage pregnancy Child birth associated trauma High postnatal mortality Population pressure, health costs, human development loss Health costs Early widowhood, (c) Sense of responsibility and consciousness for his family and respect of government laws. He expressed his views boldly for the right cause.
• MTP is done to get rid of unwanted pregnancies either due to unprotected intercourse or failure of the contraceptives used during coitus or rapes. It is also essential in certain cases where continuation of the pregnancy could be harmful or fatal either to the foetus or mother. Yes, Government of India legalized MTP in 1971 with some conditions to avoid its misuse.
• It decreases per capita income of person.
• It decreases the availability of natural resources like land, minerals, wood, fuel, etc.
• General health goes down due to over crowded living conditions.
• It results in large families and thus children do not get proper care and education.

Class 12 Biology Chapter Wise Test Paper

• Reproduction in Organisms
• Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
• Human Reproduction
• Reproductive Health
• Principles of Inheritance and Variation
• Molecular Basis of Inheritance
• Human Health and Disease
• Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
• Microbes in Human Welfare
• Biotechnology Principles and Processes
• Biotechnology and its Applications
• Organisms and Populations
• Biodiversity and Conservation
• Environmental Issues

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• Extra Questions for Class 12 Biology Biotechnology and its Applications
• Class 12 Biology Microbes in Human Welfare Extra Questions
• Extra Questions for Class 12 Biology Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

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